Mesorat%20hashas for Pesachim 185:13

וממאי (דהא) חטאו ישא כרת הוא

R'Nathan said: Whoever is subject to the first is subjec to the second, and whoever is not subject to the first is not subject to the second. Wherein do they differ? - Rabbi holds: The second is a separate Festival. R'Nathan holds: The second is a compensation for the second,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Hence only he who was subject to the law at the first can keep the second.');">¹⁶</span> [but] it does not make amends for the first.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Hence if a person deliberately neglects the first he incurs kareth even if he keeps the second. On the other hand, if he neglects the first unwittingly, he is not liable to kareth even if he deliberately neglects the second, since the second is not an independent obligation apart from the first.');">¹⁷</span> While R'Hanania B''Akabia holds: The second makes amends for the first. Now the three deduce [their views] from the same verse: But the man that is clean, and is not in a journey.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Num. IX, 13.');">¹⁸</span> Rabbi holds: And forbeareth to keep the Passover, that soul shall be cut off<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Ibid.');">¹⁹</span> - because he did not keep [it] at the first; or alternatively [if] he brought not the offering of the Lord in i appointed season<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Ibid. because (Heb. ki) he brought not the offering etc. Ki is variously translated according to the context, v. R.H. 3a. Rabbi renders it 'if'.');">²⁰</span> [i.e.,] at the second. And how do you know that that [phrase], 'that man shall bear his sin, '<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Ibid.');">²¹</span> means kareth?

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